We, Americans, have grown up with the understanding that Americans are infinitely better, that we stopped the flow of fascism in Europe, and that we saved the rest of the Jews and gave them a place to call home in 1948. However, the dilemma becomes a problem when we analyze the inconsistencies with which we judge Nazism. By what means where the Nazis evil?
So let's analyze this. Adolf Hitler, democratically elected, democratically votes out democracy, was encouraged by the Germans in foreign lands to save them and to take back territory lost during the first World War, was in agreement with the rest of Europe in hating Jews, and to make matters worst had not defied any national or unified law in Europe or Asia to do the "evil" things done unto mankind. So what's the problem? Well, we must first question what is perceived as the problem.
We shall start with the incursions into Europe: The Treaty of Versailles demanded that Germany not rebuild their military and maintain a small force. The common misconception is that Germany defied the treaty, however Germany was not the first to defy the treaty. France moved forces into the demilitarized zone in Alsace Loraine, thereby negating the treaty all together. That's political theory 101.
Then we must ask, was the incursions into Czechoslovakia and Austria authorized under international law, and for that matter even the incursion into Poland--we will address Africa and the Nordic countries hereafter. The matter is that the incursions were settled peacefully and under German law. The German speaking people in Austria and the Sudetenland where all German nationals and under abuse by their "lords," negotiations were sought but brought to naught. Thereby the inevitable demand of those territories became the only option. When Germany demanded Danzig, it was an independent state not owned by Poland. This makes matters even more interesting, since Poland refused to allow the turn over of Danzig, which wasn't theirs, to Germany. Germany then staged an attack upon a radio station and claimed Poland had initiated the war. It can be argued that Germany had the right to retake the land that was once German, however this argument is filled with problems and endless loopholes since the fall of Rome. It was the German tribes who conquered Europe, hence most of Europe is purely German. If we claim that the invaded countries had a right to defend and retake their land, then that claim is as old as the nations of Europe.
However, this problem still stems further, Germany invaded France, the Balkans and the Nordic countries all because the land looked conquerable? Well, no, the evidence and historical fact denies such claims. France had declared war on Germany, the Balkans were supplying the Russians and the British with arms and gave the British a back door into Germany. Africa was owned by France and Britain, and the Nordic countries supplied Germany with oil and shipping lanes and Britain blockade all the routes in the North Sea, hence the invasion to retake the lanes.
If the war portion isn't an evil but was an inevitable circumstance of war and politics then what made Germany evil in the early 20th century? It couldn't have been the inventions; since we owe our transportation, social programs and our space exploration and everything that entails to the Nazi regime.
Can we say it was because of the atrocities? That is a plausible conclusion however it is riddled with problems. Look at America and her Indian problem, thousands upon thousands had perished at the expense of greed and land lust, and yet we don't name an atrocity after our actions? In fact, the minorities were the only people to be systematically exterminated by the Nazis; Gypsies, homosexuals, Jews and other undesirables were all vanquished. However it's not much different than what the rest of the world was doing; the Jews were all expelled and persecuted in England, Russia and Spain. The Gypsies were persecuted from region to region, given no homeland and often murdered without judgement. The homosexuals and other undesirables such as the disabled and retarded, were all euthanized in many countries, including America.
In fact, the west invented a judicial system to judge these cruel actions, not upon the world but upon the Germans, who by law and ethical ambitions, were not doing anything illegal or unethical. It wasn't until after the war that these actions were forever changed to be illegal and unethical.
This may all seem like Nazi sympathizing and anti semitic, but I am not the only person to question the morality of such judgments, perhaps some should read 'Eichmann in Jerusalem' and explore the depths of such depravity.